Comparing the Olivet Discourse with I & II Thessalonians: Part 2

Let’s continue with our comparison of the Olivet Discourse and Paul’s eschatology in his epistles to the Thessalonians.

Here is a chart that shows a comparison of Matthew 24 and SECOND Thessalonians 1 & 2:

EVENT	MATT. 24	II THESS. 1&2
Antichrist revealed first	24:15	2:3
Antichrist in the temple	24:15	2:4
Falling away	24:24-26	2:3
Christ’s coming is visible to all	24:27	1:7, 2:8
Coming with angels	24:31	1:7
Punishment of the Lost	24:30	1:6, 9
Glory and power	24:30	1:9
Gathering AT his coming	24:31	2:1
Don’t be deceived	24:4	2:3

Other Commonalities between Matthew 24 and I & II Thessalonians:

• The Greek terms translated “gathering together” in Matt. 24:31 are the SAME Greek terms as used in II Thess. 2:1.
• In BOTH passages, the Greek terms and English translations are the SAME.
• In BOTH passages, this ‘gathering together’ is AFTER the man of sin is revealed.
• In BOTH passages, this ‘gathering together’ is with clouds.
• In BOTH passages, this ‘gathering together’ is with a “great sound of a trumpet.”
• In BOTH passages a universal area is covered—”from one end of heaven to the other.”
• In BOTH passages a universal reference to the people of God is used—”His elect.”

Another Problem

Another problem for the pre-Tribulation Rapture is also found in this second chapter of II Thessalonians.

“Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,…” (II Thess. 2:1)

Note that the ‘coming’ and ‘gathering’ in verse 1 are not separate and unrelated events. This is indicated by the Greek grammar.

The nouns ‘the coming’ (Gk. tes parousias) and ‘gathering-together’ (Gk. episunagoges) are separated by the word ‘and’ (Gk. kai). The first noun has the definite article ‘the’ and the second noun does not.

In Greek grammar (Sharp's first rule), this normally indicates that both nouns are referring to the same person (with personal nouns) or a unity between impersonal nouns. Therefore, only ONE event is in view here. Our “gathering together unto him” is PART OF “the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.”

The grammar Paul uses associates our being gathered together with that coming. If Paul had wanted to indicate two separate comings or events, he would have used the definite article before the second noun also (according to Sharp’s sixth rule).

The verse would then read:

“Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by the gathering together of us unto him.” (PTV, PreTrib Version)

Paul did NOT use two definite articles, and was therefore writing about a single, compound event—the Rapture at the Revelation.

This of course agrees perfectly with Matthew 24: 30-31.

“…, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds, with power and great glory. And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.”

With all the commonalities between these two passages, it is very subjective, without cause, and unnecessary to eliminate the Rapture from Matt. 24:31.

II Thessalonians 2:1-3a

“Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, not by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come…”

What does this mean? The perfect tense of the Greek phrase rendered “is at hand” implies that the Thessalonians thought (due to intense persecutions) that Christ’s coming had just become ‘imminent.’

What is Paul’s response?

‘Don’t be shaken in your mind. Don’t be troubled. Don’t let a spirit trouble you. Don’t let a word, or a letter trouble you as that the day of Christ is imminent. Let no man deceive you by any means! That day shall not come until after a falling away and the Antichrist be revealed.’ (paraphrase)

John Gill, the Baptist Greek and Hebrew scholar, had this to say in his commentary on this passage:

“As that the day of Christ is at hand; or is at this instant just now coming on; as if it would be within that year, in some certain month, and on some certain day in it; which notion the apostle would have them by no means give into."

A Word about Hyper-Dispensationalism, or Should We Listen to Jesus?

As we continue with these studies, and as you may have already noticed, we are treating the words of the Lord Jesus as if they were for us today. This won't be a problem for you if you're a new Christian, but for older believers, who have usually been taught otherwise, it might present a stumbling block.

I myself was taught that the Gospels, especially Matthew, were dangerous transitional books that did not apply to me today. I was taught that I should "rightly divide the word of truth" as instructed in 2 Timothy 2:15, and that this meant that the Gospels were not written for me. I belonged to something called the Church Age (an unbiblical term) that began in Acts chapter 2, and that only the epistles of Paul were for me.

This could not be more incorrect.

The Lord Jesus is the Head of the body known as the Church, but his words are not for us today? He is the Foundation stone of this spiritual temple known as the Church, but his words are not for us today?

Let us answer such nonsense with scripture:

"If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, ..." (1 Timothy 6:3-4)

Paul very plainly states that if somebody is teaching us not to consent to the words of the Lord Jesus that he doesn't know as much as he thinks he does!

The word doting means to be foolish or weak-minded through senility. These folks focus on the words but miss the meanings behind the words! Their emphasis on the individual words gives them the appearance of being scholarly, but it only leads to strife.

We must not relegate the words of the Lord to a different dispensation, while at the same time we are allowed to rightly divide what we are reading.

Therefore, as we continue these studies, let us not dismiss the Olivet Discourse of Matthew 24 with a wave of our hand saying, 'That wasn't written to today's Christian."

It was.

Gathering the Elect of God

In Matthew 24, known as the Olivet Discourse, the Lord Jesus gives a very clear description of the Rapture which occurs AT the Revelation. However, this clarity has been muddied by questions revolving around the word 'elect' in verse 31 and who is meant by this.

Let's look at the verses (v. 28-31):

"Immediately after the tribulation [this gives us a time frame for the Rapture] of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

"And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see [this is the visible appearing of the Lord] the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

"And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other."

Many scholars in an attempt to prove the pre-tribulation Rapture have made the 'elect' of Matthew 24 refer to the nation of Israel. However, Isaiah tells us how Israel will be gathered back into the land, and it is NOT with angels!

" ...the ships of Tarshish first, to bring thy sons from far,..." (Isaiah 60:9)

"And they shall bring all your brethren for an offering unto the LORD out of all nations upon horses, and in chariots, and in litters, and upon mules, and upon swift beasts, to my holy mountain Jerusalem..." (Isaiah 66:20)

Israel returns to their homeland by more conventional methods, NOT by angelic ones.

It is absolutely arbitrary and entirely subjective to read 'the Jewish nation' into the word 'elect' in Matthew 24. The Lord is speaking to his apostles throughout the entire discourse.

Note the pronouns “you” and “ye” of verses 4, 6, 9, 15, 20, 23, 25, 26, 32, 33, 34, 42, etc., which provide a continual reference back to the antecedent of “the disciples” (v. 3). And to make it even clearer, Jesus says in verse 25, "Behold, I have told YOU before."

Who is this 'you'? It is the ones who would preach the gospel in "in all the world for a witness unto all nations." Does this sound like a nation of unbelieving Jews?

No, both the audience and the subject of the Olivet Discourse are believers in Jesus Christ.

The word ‘elect’ simply means ‘chosen’ as in:

• “Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you” (Jn. 15:16)
• “but I have chosen you out of the world” (Jn. 15:19)
• “for he is a chosen vessel unto me” (Acts 9:15)
• “God hath chosen the foolish things to confound the wise” (I Cor. 1:27)
• “According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world” (Eph. 1:4)
• “But ye are a chosen generation” (I Pet. 2:4)
• “they that are with him are called, and chosen and faithful" (Rev. 17:4)

Every reference above is to Christians! We are God's elect!

Paul refers to believers as "God's elect" in Romans 8:33a, "Who shall lay any thing to the charge of God's elect?" And he also calls the Colossian saints the "elect of God" in Colossians 3:12.

Peter writes his first epistle to those scattered believers whom he refers to as "Elect according to ... the sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (I Peter 1:2).

John writes his second epistle to "the elect lady" also referring to a believer.


Those who hold to the pre-tribulation Rapture also attempt to avoid the CLEAR teachings of Christ in Matthew 24:31 by saying that 'the book of Matthew was written to the Jews.'

But what about Mark's Gospel which says the same thing and was written to the Romans (i.e. Gentiles)? And what about Luke's Gospel which says the same thing and was written to the Greeks (i.e. Gentiles)?

Don't they realize that Matthew is the only gospel that mentions the word "church" (Matthew 16)? Or, that Matthew contains the marching orders of the Church (28:18-20)? Or, that Matthew himself was a believer?

Therefore, the literal meaning of Matthew 24:30-31, is that at his post-tribulation return, Jesus will send forth his angels with a great trump to gather together those who are Christians from the four corners of the earth and heaven.