Does Daniel's 70th Week Exclude the Church? Part 2

In the last post, we started looking at some of the logical fallacies and false assumptions that require the Church to be removed prior to the start of the Tribulation period.

In this post, we'll continue where we left off.



The Old Testament Prophecies

It is argued that the emphasis of the Tribulation is primarily Jewish in the Old Testament; there is NO mention of the Church.

This is true. However, isn't this exactly what we would expect in prophecies that were given specifically to the nation of Israel?

We could just as easily argue that the absence of the Church from prophecies predicting the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD prove that the Church would be raptured before the coming of General Titus.

No, an argument from silence never proves anything.



The Olivet Discourse

In Matthew 24, the Lord Jesus talks with his disciples about future things. This is known as the Olivet Discourse because it takes place at the Mount of Olives.

I have read of an argument which goes something like this:

Because the Olivet Discourse is addressed to Jews, and because it primarily concerns Jews, then the Tribulation period is about the Jewish nation; it is NOT about the Church.

This is incorrect on many levels. We've already shown that the 'elect' of Matthew 24 are believers, so the subject of the Olivet Discourse is the future of the Church (specifically at the end of this age). The audience is also comprised of believers, not unbelieving national Jews.

This discourse was given to the Lord’s disciples just two days before the Upper Room Discourse.

These same disciples were told just one week later to preach the gospel to all the Gentile nations, “teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you.”

Surely “all things” must have included the command to be watching for Christ’s coming “immediately after the tribulation of those days.” (Matt. 24)

The Book of Revelation is Jewish

Yet another argument used to exclude the Church from the Tribulation is the extensive use of Jewish terminology in the book of Revelation. There is mention of the temple, the incense, the altar, the tribes, etc.

This is true. The terminology does hearken back to the Old Testament. But that is merely because the Old Testament priesthood was a shadow built upon the reality found in Heaven.

Listen, if there is a “great multitude” of blood-bought martyrs who come out of “great tribulation” (Rev. 7:9), of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, HOW IS THE TRIBULATION PRIMARILY JEWISH?

If anything, it is primarily about the Church!

Absence of the Word 'Church'

Isn’t it amazing that the absence of the word church in Revelation chapters 4-19 proves to the pre-Tribulationist that the Church is not on the earth during the Tribulation, and yet the word church is not in Rev. 4:1 either, but EVERY pre-Tribulationist sees the Church in this verse!

The word church is not used in Rev. 19 either but EVERYBODY can plainly see her coming down on white horses with the Lord Jesus! (Rev. 19 uses the terms “wife” and “saints” not church.)

If the absence of the word church in Rev. 4-19 proves that the church is not on earth at this time, it must also prove that the church is not in heaven at this time. Apparently, the Church just disappears for seven years!

This is logical ending of such faulty reasoning which is necessary to hold to the belief in a pre-Tribulation Rapture.

A Side Note

Many hyper-dispensationalists say that the books of Hebrews, James, and I & II Peter are written for the Tribulation saints, and not for today's Church. They are 'time capsule' epistles, it is taught.

If this is so, how do these poor Tribulation saints call for the elders of the “church” when they are sick (Jms 5:14), if the Church has already been rapture out?

If this is so, how does the “church that is at Babylon” salute them seeing that this Church was raptured out before the Tribulation even started? (I Peter 5:13)

And, how is this Church at Babylon “elected together with” these Tribulation saints when these Tribulation saints are not part of the Church? Even though these Tribulation saints are born-again. (Cf. I Peter 1:23)

Thank you again for your time! God bless!

Does Daniel's 70th Week Exclude the Church? Part 1

I used to teach that the Church had to be removed in a pre-trib Rapture so that God could continue His program with Israel in Daniel’s 70^th Week, a.k.a. the time of Jacob’s trouble.

But I don't any more because this position is based upon TWO false assumptions:

1. The Lord can't deal with the nation of Israel while the Church is on the earth
2. The Tribulation period ONLY involves the nation of Israel

Jerusalem 70 AD

Must the church be removed before the Lord can fulfill prophecies pertaining to the nation of Israel? No, not at all.

The destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman general Titus occurred in 70AD. This was clearly a fulfillment of both Old and New Testament prophecy. In fact, this event was prophesied in the 70 Weeks prophecy of Daniel 9. It was very specific to Israel, and yet it was fulfilled after the death of Christ and after the Spirit was given at Pentecost!

“… and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood,…”

This destruction was accomplished almost 40 years into the so-called ‘Church Age!’

The Luke 21 Prophecy

In Luke 21: 8-33, the Lord Jesus is teaching his followers (believing Jews) about future things.

In this passage, Christ indicates a clear distinction between his disciples (Christians) and Israel, while both are present in the land of Israel at the same time!

Verse 20, spoken to believers, says, “When ye shall see Jerusalem compassed about with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.”

The believers are told to “flee.” (v. 21)

Verse 23, concerning the nation of Israel, says, “for there shall be great distress upon the land, and wrath upon this people.”

The unbelieving Jews would suffer greatly.

The Lord is very capable of dealing with the nation of Israel while Christians are in the very midst.

By the way...

We know from Eusebius’ Church History that Christian Jews (members of the Church) who were living in the city of Jerusalem in 70AD followed Jesus’ warnings and escaped to the mountains.

The entire Jerusalem Church fled when the Romans came. But the unbelieving Jews, who did not believe Jesus or the warnings of the early Christians, stayed within the walls of the city and were destroyed.

With such an historical precedent for God’s dealing with the nation of Israel in judgment while the Church remained on earth, it is hard to imagine why the Church must be removed before Daniel’s 70^th Week.

Furthermore

If the removal of the Church is necessary for the Lord to once again deal with the nation of Israel, then we must conclude that the return to the land, the re-establishment of the nation in 1948, and all the subsequent events among the Jews, have nothing to do with God’s working with Israel on a national basis!

Does the Tribulation Only Involve the Jews?

Another argument that is used as proof of a pre-Tribulation Rapture is based upon circular reasoning.

First, it is taught that the Church is removed before the Tribulation, thus excluding the Tribulation saints from being part the Church.

Then, it is taught that since the Church isn't present, the Tribulation “saints” mentioned between Rev. 4 and 19 must not be the Church.

And if the Church is not present, then obviously the Tribulation does not deal with the Church. (We disproved this argument in the previous section.)

This is a logical fallacy and mishandling of the word of God.


(To be continued.)